Below is a quote from the above article on the new forum. Am I reading this wrong? It looks like they're saying the rate of CHR is lower than the rate of CMR. Is that even possible? I thought that in order to have CMR you had to have already reached CHR and then CCyR. Or, did someone get the numbers backwards?
"The complete hematologic (blood based) response (no sign of active disease) rate to treatment was 50% in these patients. The complete cytogenic (chromosome based) response (decrease in abnormal chromosomes) rate was 71%. The complete molecular (molecule based) response (no sign of abnormal chromosomes) rate was 75%."