My onc gave me my BCR-ABL quant results and I need help deciphering what they means. So background info. Im in the chronic phase of CML, diagnosed in Sept 2011, started on 150mg Tasigna PO BID, then due to unresolved problems he switched me to 400mg Gleevec PO SID in June 2012. A week later he called to find out how I was doing with the new meds and to tell me that he would have switched them anyways based on my BRC-ABL results. So he said my Ph+ chromosomes are lower but that my B3A2 count was at 100% and my B2A2 is at 0%, and that no reduction in the B3A2 has occured since I started treatment (In September it was 100% too). I have no blasts which is good, and my CBC has been normal the past 6 months, although at this last appointment, everything was high normal. So the Tasigna worked on my hematological state, but not cytogenic. Anyways, he said i'm still in chronic phase because there is no basts, but what does the 100% B3A2 mean? Originally I thought if this count was higher than 10% I would have progressed further in my CML. Also, how or what decides the percentage? such as, do they look at 100 cells' chromosonal layer and if all are mutated its 100% or what, I'm pretty confused on this one thing. Plus, he keeps saying if and when the gleevec doesn't work there's some new drug he can get in Canada, which is making me freak out more, I really want the Gleevec to work.
Thanks for the help!